CST Practice Exam Test

Are you getting ready for a career as a surgical technologist? Take on our CST Practice Exam Test to evaluate your readiness. A certified surgical technologist plays a vital role in assisting surgeons and other medical professionals in the operating room and preparing patients for surgery. To become certified, you must pass the CST exam. Try this quiz to gauge your preparation for the finals. Good luck!

Edited by Me.bot Editorial Team Questions: 48 September 23, 2024

Character Test

1. What is the best shielding against gamma rays?

Lead

Tin

Steel

Rubber

2. An appropriate placement area for the electrosurgical ground pad for a patient in lithotomy position is:

Upper arm

Upper buttock

Anterior thigh

Posterior shoulder

3. What is the optimal position for breast surgery?

Dorsal Recumbent

Prone

Lateral

Lithotomy

4. When transitioning an anesthetized patient from lithotomy to supine, the legs should be lowered slowly to prevent:

Circulatory depression

Hypertension

Laryngospasm

Respiratory issues

5. Hair removed during preparation for cranial surgery should be:

Saved as personal property

Discarded

Sent to pathology

Saved for possible transplant

6. The lower leg of a patient in lateral position for kidney surgery should be:

Flexed

Extended

Abducted

Externally Rotated

7. Which item is required when setting up for a D&C?

Stirrups

Cell-saver unit

Cassette holder

Electrosurgery unit

8. The usual position chosen for hemorrhoidectomy is:

Jack-knife

Lateral

Supine

Knee-chest

9. The preferred position for a TURP procedure is:

Lithotomy

Sims

Lateral

Supine

10. A normal adult white blood cell count is:

5000 to 9000

1000 to 2000

12000 to 15000

20000 to 25000

11. The most common straight catheter used prior to laparoscopic gynecologic surgery is:

Robinson

Pezzer

Malecot

Foley

12. For an ORIF of the humerus, which area of the body is prepped?

Arm, fingers to shoulder

Arm, foot to shoulder

Leg, foot to hip

Arm, fingers to elbow

13. An item that may be used in positioning a patient for a total hip replacement is:

Beanbag

Stirrups

Wilson frame

Andrews frame

14. Instruments that touch the appendix during an appendectomy should be:

Placed in a separate basin

Wiped with a saline sponge

Returned to the Mayo stand

Wiped with an alcohol sponge

15. Which procedure uses a microscope?

Stapedectomy

Tracheostomy

Radical neck

Tonsillectomy

16. For which procedure might a tourniquet be used?

Patellectomy

ORIF hip

Arthroscopy of shoulder

Femoral, popliteal bypass

17. Bleeding during a TURP is controlled by:

Cauterization

Gelfoam

Irrigation

Suture ligature

18. Bellucci scissors are used in which specialty?

Otorhinolaryngology

Gynecology

General

Plastic and Reconstructive

19. In strabismus surgery, what is the first tissue layer that must be incised?

Conjunctiva

Iris

Cornea

Scelera

20. What suturing technique involves short lateral stitches beneath the skin’s epithelial layer?

Subcuticular

Purse-string

Traction

Mattress

21. For embolectomies, which catheter is used?

Fogarty

Foley

Malecot

Angiocath

22. In a TURP setup, which instrument should be included?

Resectoscope

Lithotrite

Urethrotome

Gaylor biopsy forceps

23. Which instrument has teeth?

Allis

Mixter

Babcock

Mosquito

24. The active electrode on an electrosurgical unit is:

Pencil

Wall plug

Grounding pad

Voltage intensity dial

25. In a cholecystectomy, which anatomical structure must always be preserved?

Cystic duct

Cystic vein

Common duct

Cystic artery

26. Kelly clamps are primarily used for:

Hemostasis

Grasping

Crushing

Exposure

27. To prevent a loop colostomy from sliding back, it may be supported with:

Plastic or glass rod

Stone clamp

Adaptic gauze

Montgomery strap

28. For a cranial aneurysm preparation, which equipment is most likely used?

Microscope

Cryoprobe

Jordan Day drill

Crutchfield tongs

29. A resectoscope is used to resect the:

Prostate

Ovaries

Vas deferens

Fallopian tubes

30. The most accurate method to check autoclave effectiveness is:

Biological controls

Heat indicators

Swab culture tests

Heat-sensitive tape

31. What destroys vegetative organisms and spores?

Sterilizing agent

Germicide

Antiseptic

Bacteriostatic agent

32. Which solution is used for disinfecting endoscopic instruments?

Activated glutaraldehyde

Iodophors

Ethyl alcohol 70%

Phenolic compounds

33. Which is the most resistant to sterilization processes?

Spore

Virus

Spirochete

Tubercle bacillus

34. One factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization is:

Humidity

Indirect contact

Gravity displacement

Saturated steam

35. An antiseptic would be used on:

Skin surface

Anesthesia masks

Intravenous tubing

Operating room table

36. Which connective tissue type fastens muscle to bone?

Tendon

Ligament

Cartilage

Areolar

37. A fluid-filled sac that prevents friction in a joint is called a:

Bursa

Tendon

Ganglion

Ligament

38. Cancer cells typically migrate through which system?

Lymphatic

Skeletal

Endocrine

Respiratory

39. The parathyroid gland regulates:

Calcium

Protein

Sodium

Bicarbonate

40. Aerobic organisms are best described as:

Oxygen-requiring

Pathogenic

Non-pathogenic

Non-oxygen-requiring

41. Upon an aseptic technique break, the scrub should:

Notify the person who broke the technique and correct the problem.

Notify the circulator and leave the decision to him/her.

Notify the OR supervisor and leave the decision to him/her.

Say nothing

42. An inanimate object that transmits a disease is a:

Fomite

Vector

Carrier

Arthropod

43. When two sterile individuals pass each other in the sterile field, they should:

Pass back-to-back

Both face the wall

Pass side-to-side

Both face the sterile field.

44. The local tissue reaction to injury is:

Inflammation

Fever

Infection

Immune reaction

45. Bacteria of the genus Clostridium are:

Anaerobic

Aerobic

Coagulase-negative

Nonspore-forming

46. Cleaning the OR prior to the first procedure should:

Include flat surfaces of tables and equipment.

Be done with a dry towel.

Be done with an antiseptic.

Concentrate on anesthetic equipment.

47. Sodium bicarbonate treats:

Acidosis

Alkalosis

Hypotension

Hypertension

48. In an emergency, which drug may raise a patient’s blood pressure?

Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

Morphine sulfate

Procaine (Novocaine)

Succinylcholine (Anectine)

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Frequently Asked Questions

What is the CST Practice Exam Test?

The CST Practice Exam Test is a preparatory quiz designed to help aspiring surgical technologists evaluate their readiness for the CST certification exam.

Why is the CST Practice Exam Test important?

The CST Practice Exam Test is crucial because it allows candidates to assess their knowledge and preparedness for the actual CST certification exam, increasing their chances of passing.

How can I benefit from taking the CST Practice Exam Test?

By taking the CST Practice Exam Test, you can identify areas where you need to improve, build confidence, and enhance your exam-taking skills, ensuring better performance on the final test.

What topics are covered in the CST Practice Exam Test?

The CST Practice Exam Test covers a range of topics, including the roles and responsibilities of a surgical technologist, operating room procedures, and patient preparation for surgery.

Is the CST Practice Exam Test aligned with the actual CST certification exam?

Yes, the CST Practice Exam Test is designed to closely mimic the structure and content of the actual CST certification exam, providing a realistic preparation experience.

RELATED QUIZZES

2024-10-14

CST Practice Exam Test

Character Test

1. What is the best shielding against gamma rays?

2. An appropriate placement area for the electrosurgical ground pad for a patient in lithotomy position is:

3. What is the optimal position for breast surgery?

4. When transitioning an anesthetized patient from lithotomy to supine, the legs should be lowered slowly to prevent:

5. Hair removed during preparation for cranial surgery should be:

6. The lower leg of a patient in lateral position for kidney surgery should be:

7. Which item is required when setting up for a D&amp;C?

8. The usual position chosen for hemorrhoidectomy is:

9. The preferred position for a TURP procedure is:

10. A normal adult white blood cell count is:

11. The most common straight catheter used prior to laparoscopic gynecologic surgery is:

12. For an ORIF of the humerus, which area of the body is prepped?

13. An item that may be used in positioning a patient for a total hip replacement is:

14. Instruments that touch the appendix during an appendectomy should be:

15. Which procedure uses a microscope?

16. For which procedure might a tourniquet be used?

17. Bleeding during a TURP is controlled by:

18. Bellucci scissors are used in which specialty?

19. In strabismus surgery, what is the first tissue layer that must be incised?

20. What suturing technique involves short lateral stitches beneath the skin’s epithelial layer?

21. For embolectomies, which catheter is used?

22. In a TURP setup, which instrument should be included?

23. Which instrument has teeth?

24. The active electrode on an electrosurgical unit is:

25. In a cholecystectomy, which anatomical structure must always be preserved?

26. Kelly clamps are primarily used for:

27. To prevent a loop colostomy from sliding back, it may be supported with:

28. For a cranial aneurysm preparation, which equipment is most likely used?

29. A resectoscope is used to resect the:

30. The most accurate method to check autoclave effectiveness is:

31. What destroys vegetative organisms and spores?

32. Which solution is used for disinfecting endoscopic instruments?

33. Which is the most resistant to sterilization processes?

34. One factor affecting ethylene oxide sterilization is:

35. An antiseptic would be used on:

36. Which connective tissue type fastens muscle to bone?

37. A fluid-filled sac that prevents friction in a joint is called a:

38. Cancer cells typically migrate through which system?

39. The parathyroid gland regulates:

40. Aerobic organisms are best described as:

41. Upon an aseptic technique break, the scrub should:

42. An inanimate object that transmits a disease is a:

43. When two sterile individuals pass each other in the sterile field, they should:

44. The local tissue reaction to injury is:

45. Bacteria of the genus Clostridium are:

46. Cleaning the OR prior to the first procedure should:

47. Sodium bicarbonate treats:

48. In an emergency, which drug may raise a patient’s blood pressure?

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7. Which item is required when setting up for a D&C?